Hello Gilberto ,

Fantastic explanation.
I was spend many time today to understand this concept.
Finally You help me a lot to figured out.
Now I understand it. and Finally can get some sleep.

Thanks again

Cheers.

Hello Gilberto,
thanks a lot for example and explain.
Many part are much more clear to me.
Some part a bit confused to me.
"LFO ranges from -1 to 1"
What I understand range -1 to 1 amplitude is full cycle of 1Hz , thus -1 to 1 = 1Hz.
or do i to think -1 is half and 1 is half thus 2Hz ?
i don't understand What makes 2Hz ?
Do i miss something before to understanding this concept ?

Hello everyone,
I have some question in Ring modulation
Can some body explain to me some theory in Ring modulation .
here is question.
Q: How come carrier Frequency phase cancel out in RM ?

For instance, if the carrier is 900 Hz and the modulator is 500 Hz, we will get two sidebands; one at 400 Hz (900 - 500) and one at 1400 Hz (900 + 500) and Carrier Frequency cancel out ?
How come ? There is no out of phase in this signal , then how do we get understand this ?
I was search on internet and could not find an answer.

last question in AM

suppose we use range -1 , 0, 1 amplitude.
there is two difference range of amplitude . one is -1,0,1other one is 0,1

a range of amplitude -1 ,0, 1 is longer than 0,1 rate because signal go through 0 , 1 ,-1 ,0, and 0,1 has only 0 to 1 and 0.
unipolar has short rate than bipolar.
but actually if i modulated two signal with those range of amplitude and compared.
the result was opposite.
bipolar is more fast than unipolar.
i think bipolar takes more time to hear the signal than unipolar
because the signal go through 0 and -1 , o to 1 that makes more time than unipolar.
I am curious how come range -1 , 0, 1 is fast than 0, 1 .
maybe i am completely lost this section.or completely wrong approach.
I really wanna understand this. can someone help me ?
thanks in Advance
lu.